CIC VALID BRAINDUMPS BOOK, CIC RELEVANT QUESTIONS

CIC Valid Braindumps Book, CIC Relevant Questions

CIC Valid Braindumps Book, CIC Relevant Questions

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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following patients with human immunodeficiency virus infection requires Airborne precautions?

  • A. 24-year-old male newly diagnosed with a CD4 count of 70
  • B. 46-year-old female with a cavitary lesion in upper lobe
  • C. 36-year-old male with cryptococcal meningitis
  • D. 28-year-old female with Mycobacterium avium in sputum

Answer: B

Explanation:
HIV patients require Airborne Precautions if they have tuberculosis (TB). A cavitary lesion in the upper lobe is highly suggestive of active pulmonary TB, which requires Airborne Precautions due to aerosolized transmission.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. 24-year-old male newly diagnosed with a CD4 count of 70 - Low CD4 count alone does not warrant Airborne Precautions unless there is active TB or another airborne pathogen.
* B. 28-year-old female with Mycobacterium avium in sputum - Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is not airborne, and standard precautions are sufficient.
* C. 36-year-old male with cryptococcal meningitis - Cryptococcus neoformans is not transmitted via the airborne route, so Airborne Precautions are unnecessary.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
Patients with HIV and suspected TB require Airborne Precautions until TB is ruled out.


NEW QUESTION # 25
A 17-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with fever, stiff neck, and vomiting. A lumbar puncture is done. The Gram stain shows Gram negative diplocooci. Presumptive identification of the organism is

  • A. Listeria monocytogenes
  • B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • C. Neisseria meningitidis
  • D. Haemophilus influenzae

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Gram stain showing Gram-negative diplococci in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is characteristic of Neisseria meningitidis, a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adolescents and young adults.
Step-by-Step Justification:
* Gram Stain Interpretation:
* Gram-negative diplococci in CSF strongly suggest Neisseria meningitidis.
* Classic Symptoms of Meningitis:
* Fever, stiff neck, and vomiting are hallmark signs of meningococcal meningitis.
* Neisseria meningitidis vs. Other Bacteria:
* Haemophilus influenzae (Option A) # Gram-negative coccobacilli.
* Listeria monocytogenes (Option C) # Gram-positive rods.
* Streptococcus pneumoniae (Option D) # Gram-positive diplococci.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Ready Reference for Microbes, "Neisseria meningitidis and Meningitis".


NEW QUESTION # 26
An infection preventionist is reviewing practices in a facility's food preparation department. Which of the following practices should be revised?

  • A. Discarding most perishable food within 72 hours
  • B. Maintaining hot food at 145° F (62.7° C) during serving
  • C. Thawing meat at room temperature
  • D. Using a cutting board to cut vegetables

Answer: C

Explanation:
Thawing raw meat at room temperature is a major food safety violation because it allows bacteria to multiply rapidly within the temperature danger zone (40-140°F or 4.4-60°C). Meat should always be thawed in the refrigerator, under cold running water, or in a microwave if cooked immediately.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* B. Using a cutting board to cut vegetables - This is safe as long as proper cleaning and sanitation procedures are followed.
* C. Maintaining hot food at 145°F (62.7°C) during serving - 145°F is an acceptable minimum temperature for certain meats like beef, fish, and pork.
* D. Discarding most perishable food within 72 hours - Many perishable foods, especially leftovers, should be discarded within 3 days, making this an appropriate practice.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
The APIC guidelines emphasize that raw meat should never be thawed at room temperature due to the risk of bacterial growth and foodborne illness.


NEW QUESTION # 27
When developing an exposure control plan, the MOST important aspect in the prevention of exposure to tuberculosis is:

  • A. Identification of a potentially infectious patient.
  • B. Placement of the patient in an airborne infection isolation room.
  • C. Prompt initiation of chemotherapeutic agents.
  • D. Use of personal protective equipment.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Tuberculosis (TB), caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is an airborne disease that poses a significant risk in healthcare settings, particularly through exposure to infectious droplets. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, which includes developing exposure control plans, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) "Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings" (2005). The question seeks the most important aspect of an exposure control plan to prevent TB exposure, requiring a prioritization of preventive strategies.
Option B, "Identification of a potentially infectious patient," is the most important aspect. Early identification of individuals with suspected or confirmed TB (e.g., through symptom screening like persistent cough, fever, or weight loss, or diagnostic tests like chest X-rays and sputum smears) allows for timely isolation and treatment, preventing further transmission. The CDC guidelines stress that the first step in an exposure control plan is to recognize patients with signs or risk factors for infectious TB, as unrecognized cases are the primary source of healthcare worker and patient exposures. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) also mandates risk assessment and early detection as foundational to TB control plans.
Option A, "Placement of the patient in an airborne infection isolation room," is a critical control measure once a potentially infectious patient is identified. Airborne infection isolation rooms (AIIRs) with negative pressure ventilation reduce the spread of infectious droplets, as recommended by the CDC. However, this step depends on prior identification; placing a patient in an AIIR without knowing their infectious status is inefficient and not the initial priority. Option C, "Prompt initiation of chemotherapeutic agents," is essential for treating active TB and reducing infectiousness, typically within days of effective therapy, per CDC guidelines.
However, this follows identification and diagnosis (e.g., via acid-fast bacilli smear or culture), making it a secondary action rather than the most important preventive aspect. Option D, "Use of personal protective equipment," such as N95 respirators, is a key protective measure for healthcare workers once an infectious patient is identified, as outlined by the CDC and OSHA. However, PPE is a reactive measure that mitigates exposure after identification and isolation, not the foundational step to prevent it.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines prioritize early identification as the cornerstone of TB exposure prevention, enabling all subsequent interventions. Option B ensures that the exposure control plan addresses the source of transmission at its outset, making it the most important aspect.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings, 2005.
* OSHA Respiratory Protection Standard, 29 CFR 1910.134.


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following infectious diseases is associated with environmental fungi?

  • A. Campylobacter
  • B. Listeriosis
  • C. Hantavirus
  • D. Mucormycosis

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, "Mucormycosis," as it is the infectious disease associated with environmental fungi.
According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, mucormycosis is caused by fungi belonging to the order Mucorales, which are commonly found in the environment, including soil, decaying organic matter, and contaminated water. These fungi can become opportunistic pathogens, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, leading to severe infections such as rhinocerebral, pulmonary, or cutaneous mucormycosis (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I:
Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes).
Environmental exposure, such as inhalation of fungal spores or contact with contaminated materials, is a primary mode of transmission, making it directly linked to environmental fungi.
Option A (Listeriosis) is caused by the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes, typically associated with contaminated food products (e.g., unpasteurized dairy or deli meats) rather than environmental fungi. Option B (Hantavirus) is a viral infection transmitted through contact with rodent excreta, not fungi, and is linked to environmental reservoirs like rodent-infested areas. Option D (Campylobacter) is a bacterial infection caused by Campylobacter species, often associated with undercooked poultry or contaminated water, and is not related to fungi.
The association of mucormycosis with environmental fungi underscores the importance of infection prevention strategies, such as controlling environmental contamination and protecting vulnerable patients, which aligns with CBIC's focus on identifying and mitigating risks from infectious agents in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). This knowledge is critical for infection preventionists to guide environmental cleaning and patient care protocols.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes; Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents.


NEW QUESTION # 29
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